Free CT registry practice questions with answers

1. Window width primarily controls image:

1. AContrast
2. BPitch
3. CDose
4. DBrightness

2. Window level primarily controls image:

1. ABrightness
2. BCollimation
3. CNoise index
4. DRotation speed

3. Multiplanar reconstruction allows images to be displayed in:

1. ADose maps only
2. BOnly axial plane
3. CAdditional planes such as coronal and sagittal
4. DOnly scout view

4. A maximum intensity projection best highlights:

1. AMotion blur
2. BSoft-tissue noise
3. CLow-density fat
4. DHigh-attenuation structures like vessels with contrast

5. Minimum intensity projection is especially useful for evaluating:

1. ACalcified plaque only
2. BBone cortex only
3. CMetal hardware
4. DAirways and low-density structures

6. Volume rendering differs from MIP because it:

1. AUses no attenuation data
2. BApplies opacity to a range of voxels
3. CShows only the brightest voxel
4. DRequires film processing

7. Image noise is best described as:

1. AA type of contrast
2. BUniform brightness
3. CRandom pixel variation
4. DA calibration ring

8. Which phase is most commonly best for detecting many hepatic metastases?

1. AArterial
2. BPortal venous
3. CUltra-delayed
4. DNoncontrast

9. Which protocol is typically used for suspected nephrolithiasis?

1. AArterial phase abdomen
2. BNoncontrast abdomen/pelvis
3. CDelayed cystogram
4. DOral contrast only

10. For suspected aortic dissection, the study of choice is usually:

1. ADelayed pelvis CT
2. BCTA chest with arterial timing
3. CPortal venous abdomen CT
4. DNoncontrast head CT

11. Which exam is most appropriate for suspected pulmonary embolism?

1. AHRCT chest without contrast
2. BCT abdomen
3. CNoncontrast chest CT
4. DCTA chest

12. For initial evaluation of acute stroke in the emergency setting, which CT is usually performed first?

1. ACTA head only
2. BNoncontrast head CT
3. CDelayed sinus CT
4. DCT perfusion only

13. Which CT region is commonly scanned for suspected appendicitis?

1. AChest only
2. BAbdomen and pelvis
3. CCervical spine
4. DOrbits

14. A CT pulmonary angiogram requires optimal enhancement of the pulmonary arteries. Which timing method is best?

1. AFixed 10-second delay
2. BBolus tracking in pulmonary trunk
3. CBolus tracking in descending aorta
4. DScan at injection start

15. A patient with reduced renal function is scheduled for contrast-enhanced CT. Which action is most appropriate?

1. ARaise kVp
2. BIncrease contrast volume
3. CHydrate before and after
4. DUse thicker slices

16. Which type of iodinated contrast reaction occurs most often?

1. ACardiopulmonary arrest
2. BDelayed nephropathy
3. CSevere anaphylactoid
4. DMild reaction

17. During injection, the patient reports burning and swelling at the IV site. What should the technologist do first?

1. AStop the injection
2. BContinue and observe
3. CFlush with contrast
4. DIncrease flow rate

18. For which exam is informed consent most commonly required?

1. ANoncontrast head CT
2. BRoutine chest CT without contrast
3. CContrast-enhanced CT
4. DScout topogram only

19. Which lab value is most relevant before iodinated contrast is given?

1. AINR
2. BHemoglobin
3. CCreatinine/eGFR
4. DPlatelet count

20. Increasing pitch in helical CT most directly tends to:

1. AIncrease contrast resolution
2. BIncrease scan time
3. CIncrease overlap
4. DReduce dose

21. Increasing mA primarily changes the:

1. APhoton quantity
2. BDetector size
3. CPitch
4. DPhoton energy

22. Raising kVp primarily increases:

1. AImage matrix
2. BPhoton energy
3. CSlice overlap
4. DRotation time

23. Which change most directly reduces quantum noise?

1. ALower matrix
2. BLower mA
3. CHigher mA
4. DHigher pitch

24. Which parameter most directly improves z-axis spatial detail?

1. ALower monitor brightness
2. BLonger delay
3. CThinner slices
4. DLower kVp

25. Modern multidetector CT systems most commonly use:

1. AFilm-screen receptors
2. BPhotostimulable phosphor plates
3. CIon chambers only
4. DScintillation detectors